NASM Practice Test

A NASM practice test is a great way to see how ready you are for the NASM-CPT exam. The actual NASM final exam includes 120 questions covering biomechanics, nutrition, and client assessment, so it’s normal to feel a bit overwhelmed. This guide provides realistic sample questions, focused study strategies, and proven tips to help you target weak areas and walk into exam day with confidence.

To sit for the official NASM-CPT exam, you must be at least 18 years old, hold a high school diploma or GED, and have a valid CPR/AED certification. After creating your NASM account, you can locate the practice tests inside your student portal if you’ve purchased a study package. 

To see the full picture of the NASM certification process, read our in-depth NASM CPT review that guides you through everything from study prep to exam day

Practice Test Sections

Before we dive into practice questions, let’s break down what you’re up against. The NASM-CPT exam consists of 120 multiple-choice questions, and you’ll have 2 hours to complete it. Here’s the breakdown:

Domain 1

Basic and Applied Sciences and Nutritional Concepts (17%)

Domain 2

Assessment (18%)

Domain 3

Program Design (21%)

Domain 4

Exercise Technique and Training Instruction (22%)

Domain 5

Client Relations and Behavioral Coaching (11%)

Domain 6

Professional Development and Responsibility (11%)

To fully understand how the NASM CPT exam works, from prerequisites to question format and scoring, don’t miss our comprehensive NASM CPT Exam Info guide. Ready to test your knowledge?

NASM CPT Practice Test

Domain 1: Basic and Applied Sciences and Nutritional Concepts (17%)

This domain covers anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, and nutrition fundamentals. You need to understand how the body works before you can train it effectively.

Question 1: Which muscle is considered a prime mover during a shoulder press?

A) Anterior deltoid

B) Latissimus dorsi

C) Pectoralis major

D) Trapezius

Answer: A 

The anterior deltoid is the primary muscle responsible for shoulder flexion and abduction during pressing movements.

Question 2: What is the primary energy system used during a 400-meter sprint?

A) ATP-PC system

B) Glycolysis (anaerobic)

C) Oxidative (aerobic)

D) Beta-oxidation

Answer: B

The glycolytic system is the primary energy source for high-intensity activities lasting 30 seconds to 2 minutes.

Question 3: Which plane of motion does a lateral lunge primarily occur in?

A) Sagittal

B) Frontal

C) Transverse

D) Rotational

Answer: B

Lateral movements occur in the frontal plane, which divides the body into front and back halves and side-to-side movements.

Question 4: During a squat assessment, a client's knees move inward. This is likely due to underactive:

A) Adductor complex

B) TFL and adductor complex

C) Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

D) Hip flexor complex

Answer: C

Knee valgus (knees caving in) typically indicates underactive hip abductors (glute med) and hip external rotators (glute max).

Question 5: How many calories are in one gram of protein?

A) 4 calories

B) 7 calories

C) 9 calories

D) 12 calories

Answer: A

Protein and carbohydrates both contain 4 calories per gram, while fat contains 9 calories per gram.

Question 6: What is the recommended daily protein intake for a resistance-training client?

A) 0.4-0.6 g/kg body weight

B) 0.8-1.0 g/kg body weight

C) 1.6-2.2 g/kg body weight

D) 3.0-4.0 g/kg body weight

Answer: C

Active individuals and those training for muscle growth typically need 1.6-2.2 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.

Question 7: Which vitamin is primarily obtained through sun exposure?

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin C

C) Vitamin D

D) Vitamin E

Answer: C

Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin through exposure to UVB rays from sunlight.

Domain 2: Assessment (18%)

Assessment is where you identify your client’s current fitness level, movement quality, and health risks. NASM emphasizes “assess before you address.”

Question 8: When should the trainer administer a medical history questionnaire to a client?

A) After the first training session

B) Before beginning any fitness assessment or training

C) Only if the client appears unhealthy

D) After three months of training

Answer: B

Medical history questionnaires must be completed before any assessment or training begins to identify health risks and contraindications.

Question 9: During an overhead squat assessment, a client's arms fall forward. Which muscles are likely overactive?

A) Latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major

B) Middle and lower trapezius

C) Rotator cuff muscles

D) Rhomboids and posterior deltoid

Answer: A

Arms falling forward indicates tight/overactive lats and pecs, which are internal rotators and shoulder extensors.

Question 10: What does the shark skill test assess?

A) Upper body power

B) Core strength

C) Dynamic balance and neuromuscular control

D) Cardiovascular endurance

Answer: C

The shark skill test evaluates dynamic stabilization and neuromuscular efficiency through single-leg hopping patterns.

Question 11: A client with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 and blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg would be classified as:

A) Low risk

B) Moderate risk

C) High risk

D) Contraindicated for exercise

Answer: B

Two or more risk factors place the client in the moderate-risk category. They should get medical clearance before vigorous exercise.

Question 12: A 42-year-old client presents with excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment. The trainer notes tightness in the gastrocnemius and hip flexor complex. What is the MOST appropriate corrective stretch for this client?

A) Static calf stretch

B) Standing adductor stretch

C) Lat stretch

D) Pectoral stretch

Answer: A

Excessive forward lean is often caused by overactive gastrocnemius, soleus, and hip flexors. A static calf stretch directly targets the gastrocnemius/soleus and helps correct this compensation.

Question 13: How many repetitions should a client perform during the overhead squat assessment?

A) 3 repetitions

B) 5 repetitions

C) 10 repetitions

D) Until fatigue

Answer: B

Client should perform 5 repetitions to allow the trainer to observe movement patterns from both anterior and lateral views.

Domain 3: Program Design (21%)

This is the largest domain on the exam. You’ll need to know the OPT model inside and out, understand chronic diseases, and be able to design programs for special populations.

Question 14: What is the name of NASM's proprietary approach to exercise training?

A) The FIT model

B) The OPT model

C) The ABC model

D) The PRT model

Answer: B

The Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is NASM’s signature framework.

Question 15: A client wants to improve their golf swing power. After completing stabilization training, which OPT phase would be most appropriate?

A) Phase 2: Strength Endurance

B) Phase 3: Hypertrophy

C) Phase 4: Maximal Strength

D) Phase 5: Power

Answer: D

Power training (Phase 5) is specifically designed for explosive movements like golf swings. However, the client must have completed stabilization training first (which the question confirms).

Question 16: What is the recommended rest period for resistance training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance?

A) 0-60 seconds

B) 0-90 seconds

C) 2-3 minutes

D) 3-5 minutes

Answer: B

Phase 1 uses 0-90 second rest periods to build muscular endurance.

Question 17: Which tempo would be appropriate for the eccentric phase of a squat in Phase 1?

A) Explosive

B) 2 seconds

C) 4 seconds

D) As fast as possible

Answer: C

Phase 1 emphasizes slow, controlled movements (4-2-1 tempo: 4 seconds eccentric, 2 seconds isometric, 1 second concentric).

Question 18: What is the definition of acute disease?

A) A long-lasting medical condition that requires ongoing management

B) A suddenly occurring medical condition that can be treated and healed in a short period of time

C) A condition that develops gradually and persists over time

D) An infectious disease that spreads rapidly among populations

Answer: B

Acute illnesses occur suddenly and typically resolve within three months (like the flu or a sprained ankle).

Question 19: What is the definition of a chronic disease?

A) A medical condition that occurs suddenly and resolves quickly

B) A medical condition that persists without quickly going away or being cured altogether

C) A temporary illness that requires immediate treatment

D) A condition that only affects the elderly population

Answer: B

Chronic diseases begin slowly, progress over time, and require ongoing management (like diabetes or heart disease).

Question 20: A chronic disease is one that typically begins slowly, progresses, and persists, with a variety of signs and symptoms that can be treated but generally not cured by medication. Examples include:

A) Diabetes

B) Heart Disease

C) Cancer

D) All of the above

Answer: D

All three are classic examples of chronic diseases that require long-term management.

Question 21: What term describes a body weight that exceeds the normal or healthy range for a specific height due to excess body fat?

A) Underweight

B) Healthy Weight

C) Overweight and Obesity

D) Normal Weight

Answer: C

Overweight and obesity are clinical terms for excess body fat that increases health risks.

Question 22: Being overweight or obese increases the risk of developing which type of chronic diseases?

A) Type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and certain cancers

B) Only cardiovascular disease

C) Only musculoskeletal problems

D) Infectious diseases

Answer: A

Excess body weight significantly increases risk for multiple chronic conditions including diabetes, heart disease, stroke, certain cancers, and osteoarthritis.

Question 23: What is the definition of cardiovascular disease?

A) A condition affecting only the heart muscle

B) A broad term describing numerous problems of the heart and blood vessels

C) A type of respiratory illness

D) An infectious disease caused by bacteria

Answer: B

Cardiovascular disease encompasses heart attacks, strokes, heart failure, arrhythmias, and peripheral artery disease.

Question 24: Cardiovascular disease encompasses various health issues related to the heart and blood vessels. Which specific conditions are included in this term?

A) Only heart attacks

B) Only strokes

C) Heart attacks, strokes, heart failure, and arrhythmias

D) Only heart valve problems

Answer: C

CVD includes multiple conditions affecting the cardiovascular system, not just one specific problem.

Question 25: When training a pregnant client in the second trimester, which position should be avoided?

A) Standing

B) Seated

C) Supine (lying on back)

D) Side-lying

Answer: C

After the first trimester, supine exercises should be avoided due to risk of supine hypotensive syndrome.

Question 26: For a client with hypertension, which exercise modification is most appropriate?

A) Increase intensity to maximal levels

B) Avoid the Valsalva maneuver

C) Focus exclusively on isometric exercises

D) Train only in Phase 5

Answer: B

The Valsalva maneuver (holding breath during exertion) can dangerously spike blood pressure in hypertensive clients.

Question 27: What is the recommended frequency of resistance training for a senior adult new to exercise?

A) 1-2 days per week

B) 2-3 days per week

C) 4-5 days per week

D) 6-7 days per week

Answer: B

Seniors should start with 2-3 days per week to allow adequate recovery while building consistency.

Domain 4: Exercise Technique and Training Instruction (22%)

This domain tests your ability to teach and demonstrate proper exercise form. On the actual exam, this is the second-largest domain.

Question 28: During a barbell back squat, where should the bar be positioned for a high-bar squat?

A) On the posterior deltoids

B) On the upper trapezius

C) On the lower trapezius

D) On the cervical spine

Answer: B

High-bar squats position the bar on top of the upper traps, while low-bar squats use the posterior delts.

Question 29: What is the proper breathing pattern during a bench press?

A) Inhale during the lowering phase, exhale during the pressing phase

B) Exhale during the lowering phase, inhale during the pressing phase

C) Hold breath throughout the movement

D) Breathe normally without timing

Answer: A

Inhale during the eccentric (lowering) phase and exhale during the concentric (pressing/lifting) phase.

Question 30: During a barbell back squat, at what angle should the client's feet be positioned?

A) Pointed straight ahead or slightly turned out (0-21 degrees)

B) Turned out 45 degrees

C) Pointed inward

D) As wide as comfortable

Answer: A

Feet should be pointing straight ahead or slightly turned out (up to 21 degrees) for proper knee and hip alignment.

Question 31: What is the proper breathing pattern during a dumbbell chest press?

A) Hold breath throughout the movement

B) Exhale on the lowering phase, inhale on the pressing phase

C) Inhale on the lowering phase, exhale on the pressing phase

D) Breathe normally without timing

Answer: C

Inhale during eccentric (lowering), exhale during concentric (pressing). This applies to most resistance exercises.

Question 32: What is the recommended depth for a proper bodyweight squat?

A) Thighs parallel to the ground or slightly below

B) Quarter squat (knees bent 45 degrees)

C) Deep squat (hamstrings touching calves)

D) Whatever depth is comfortable

Answer: A

Proper squat depth is when thighs are at least parallel to the ground (or slightly below) while maintaining neutral spine.

Question 33: When performing a dumbbell shoulder press, where should the dumbbells be positioned at the starting position?

A) At shoulder height with palms facing forward

B) Behind the head

C) At chest level with palms facing each other

D) Above the head

Answer: A

Starting position: dumbbells at shoulder height, palms facing forward, elbows at approximately 90 degrees.

Question 34: During a plank exercise, where should the client's elbows be positioned relative to their shoulders?

A) In front of shoulders

B) Behind shoulders

C) Directly under shoulders

D) At a 45-degree angle

Answer: C

Elbows should be directly under shoulders to maintain proper alignment and prevent shoulder strain.

Question 35: What is the recommended breathing pattern during core exercises like planks?

A) Hold breath throughout

B) Breathe normally while maintaining core engagement

C) Rapid, shallow breathing

D) Exhale completely and hold

Answer: B

Breathe normally (diaphragmatic breathing) while maintaining core stability throughout the exercise.

Domain 5: Client Relations and Behavioral Coaching (11%)

Understanding human behavior and effective communication is essential for client retention and results.

Question 36: According to the Stages of Change model, a client who is thinking about starting an exercise program in the next six months is in which stage?

A) Precontemplation

B) Contemplation

C) Preparation

D) Action

Answer: B

Contemplation is when someone intends to change within the next 6 months but hasn’t taken action yet.

Question 37: Which communication technique involves restating a client's message in your own words?

A) Active listening

B) Paraphrasing

C) Reflecting

D) Summarizing

Answer: B

Paraphrasing shows you understand the client’s message by restating it in different words.

Question 38: A client states: "I've been thinking about joining a gym sometime in the next few months." Which stage of change is this client in?

A) Precontemplation

B) Contemplation

C) Preparation

D) Action

Answer: B

Contemplation stage: client is thinking about change within the next 6 months but hasn’t taken action yet.

Question 39: A client has been exercising consistently for 8 months. Which stage of change are they in?

A) Preparation

B) Action

C) Maintenance

D) Contemplation

Answer: C

Maintenance stage begins at 6 months of consistent exercise. The client is now maintaining the behavior change.

Question 40: What is the BEST intervention for a client in the precontemplation stage?

A) Help them set specific workout goals

B) Provide education about the benefits of exercise

C) Create a detailed 12-week training program

D) Sign them up for a fitness competition

Answer: B

Precontemplation stage requires education and awareness building. Client has no intention to change in the next 6 months.

Question 41: A client just signed up for personal training and plans to start next week. Which stage are they in?

A) Contemplation

B) Preparation

C) Action

D) Maintenance

Answer: B

Preparation stage: client has decided to change and plans to take action within 30 days. They’re preparing to start.

Question 42: A client has been exercising for 3 months but is starting to lose motivation. What stage are they in, and what's the primary risk?

A) Action stage; high risk for relapse

B) Maintenance stage; low risk for relapse

C) Preparation stage; no risk

D) Contemplation stage; moderate risk

Answer: A

Action stage (exercising less than 6 months) has the highest risk for relapse. Support and barrier management are critical.

Question 43: During an initial consultation, what should be the trainer's PRIMARY focus?

A) Selling additional training packages

B) Demonstrating advanced exercises

C) Building rapport and understanding client goals

D) Explaining all gym equipment

Answer: C

Initial consultation focuses on building trust, understanding goals, discussing health concerns, and creating connections.

Domain 6: Professional Development and Responsibility (11%)

This domain covers ethics, scope of practice, and professional standards. Understanding your boundaries protects both you and your clients.

Question 44: What is the primary reason NASM's system and methodologies are considered safe and effective?

A) They are based on anecdotal evidence

B) They focus on scientific principles

C) They are popular among fitness professionals

D) They are easy to implement

Answer: B

NASM’s reputation is built on scientific principles and research-based methodology, not popularity or ease of use.

Question 45: What focus does NASM recommend for fitness professionals to achieve the highest levels of success?

A) Client satisfaction

B) Evidence-based practice

C) Innovative marketing

D) Personal branding

Answer: B

Evidence-based practice is the cornerstone of professional success in NASM’s philosophy.

Question 46: What is the definition of evidence-based practice in the context of fitness training?

A) The use of personal experience to guide training decisions

B) The conscientious use of current best evidence in making decisions about patient or client care

C) Relying solely on traditional methods of training

D) The application of anecdotal evidence in fitness programs

Answer: B

Evidence-based practice integrates current research, clinical expertise, and client values to make informed decisions.

Question 47: What is the core guiding philosophy behind the development of the OPT model?

A) Intuitive training

B) Evidence-based practice

C) Traditional methods

D) Client-centered approach

Answer: B

The OPT model was developed using evidence-based practice, incorporating research from sports medicine, biomechanics, and exercise physiology.

Question 48: According to the National Academy of Sports Medicine code of professional conduct, trainers must conduct themselves in a manner that merits what?

A) Financial success

B) Trust and confidence from clients and peers

C) Media recognition

D) Competitive advantage

Answer: B

Professional conduct must build trust and confidence, the foundation of effective client relationships. NASM expects trainers to uphold the highest ethical standards in all interactions.

Question 49: In accordance with the National Academy of Sports Medicine code of professional conduct, how should trainers approach their professional relationships with clients and colleagues?

A) With a focus on competition and personal gain

B) With indifference and minimal engagement

C) With the utmost respect and dignity

D) With a casual and informal attitude

Answer: C

All professional relationships must be characterized by respect and dignity, regardless of the client’s background, fitness level, or goals.

Question 50: According to the National Academy of Sports Medicine code of professional conduct, certified trainers are prohibited from engaging in which of the following behaviors regarding their clients and colleagues?

A) Providing misleading information about their qualifications

B) Offering unsolicited medical advice

C) Making false or derogatory assumptions

D) Ignoring client feedback during sessions

Answer: C

Making false or derogatory assumptions violates professional conduct standards and can harm clients. Trainers must approach every client with an open mind and without prejudice.

Question 51: Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions?

A) Confidentiality

B) Professionalism

C) Business practice

D) Legal and ethical

Answer: B

The Professionalism section governs all forms of communication with clients and colleagues, including emails, social media posts, and in-person conversations.

Question 52: In accordance with the National Academy of Sports Medicine code of professional conduct, what is prohibited for trainers when dealing with clients' health concerns?

A) Providing nutritional advice without certification

B) Administering medication to clients

C) Conducting fitness assessments without consent

D) Offering emotional support during sessions

 

Answer: B

Trainers are never permitted to administer medication; this is beyond their scope of practice and could result in legal consequences. Always refer clients to appropriate medical professionals.

Question 53: According to the National Academy of Sports Medicine code of professional conduct, what is required of certified or non-certified members when working with clients who have pre-existing medical conditions?

A) They may train clients with any medical condition without restrictions

B) They must have specific training or be supervised by a licensed professional to train clients with diagnosed health conditions

C) They can train clients with diagnosed health conditions as long as they have a signed waiver

D) They are allowed to provide treatment for diagnosed health conditions as part of their training

Answer: B

Working with clients with diagnosed conditions requires specialized training or supervision by a licensed healthcare professional. A waiver alone does not qualify you to work beyond your scope of practice.

Question 54: Which two certifications are mandatory for all certified or non-certified members according to the National Academy of Sports Medicine code of professional conduct?

A) CPR and AED certification

B) First Aid and Lifeguard certification

C) Personal Trainer and Nutrition certification

D) Yoga and Pilates certification

Answer: A

CPR and AED certification are mandatory for all NASM members to ensure emergency preparedness. These certifications must be current and from an approved organization (such as American Red Cross or American Heart Association).

Question 55: According to the National Academy of Sports Medicine code of professional conduct, when should a certified or noncertified member refer a client to a medical professional?

A) When the client requests a specific exercise program

B) When the client experiences any unusual symptoms or changes in their health

C) When the client expresses dissatisfaction with training

D) When the client achieves their fitness goals

Answer: B

Any unusual symptoms or health changes warrant immediate referral to a medical professional. This includes chest pain, dizziness, severe joint pain, or any symptoms that concern you. When in doubt, refer out.

NASM CPT Practice Test

  • Don’t just memorize - understand relationships (how muscles compensate, cause & effect in movement).
  • Take practice exams under timed conditions.
  • Keep retaking them until you hit a consistent high score (many aimed for 80%+).
  • Focus review on the topics that keep tripping you up (e.g. A&P, overactive/underactive, OPT).
  • Use multiple sources (textbook, official quizzes, videos) to get different angles on the same concept.
  • Take advantage of free or low-cost resources (Quizlet, shared guides) but compare them against official content to validate correctness.
  • Look for NASM YouTube channels for video explanations and also check out the NASM Edge App.
  • Utilize study groups on social media with other test-takers.

To maximize your chances of success, supplement this practice test with these proven resources:

NASM Edge App

The official NASM mobile app provides on-the-go study materials, flashcards, and practice questions. It’s specifically designed to align with the exam content and is updated regularly. Download it from the App Store or Google Play.

NASM Student Portal

Your student dashboard includes official practice exams, chapter quizzes, and study materials. Make sure you’re utilizing all the resources included in your study package.

NASM Website

Visit nasm.org for the most current exam information, recertification requirements, and professional development opportunities.

The OPT Model: Your Secret Weapon

Here’s something every NASM trainer will tell you: master the OPT Model, and you’re already halfway to passing. The Optimum Performance Training (OPT) Model is NASM’s cornerstone, and it shows up everywhere on the exam.

The OPT Model has five phases:

  • Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance – Building a foundation with core strength, balance, and muscular endurance
  • Phase 2: Strength Endurance – Transitioning to increased loads while maintaining stability
  • Phase 3: Hypertrophy – Focusing on muscle growth
  • Phase 4: Maximal Strength – Building maximum force production
  • Phase 5: Power – Developing explosive performance

Each phase has specific acute variables (sets, reps, tempo, rest periods, intensity), and you need to know them by heart.

Important Reminders

  • Validate Information – While free resources like Quizlet are helpful, always cross-reference information with your official NASM textbook. Sometimes user-generated content contains errors.
  • Stay Updated – NASM periodically updates exam content. Make sure any third-party resources you use are current.
  • Official Practice Exams First – Prioritize NASM’s official practice tests over third-party options. They most accurately reflect the actual exam format and difficulty.
  • CPR/AED Certification – Don’t forget this is mandatory before you can sit for the exam. American Red Cross and American Heart Association are the most commonly accepted providers.

My Experience: What I Wish I Knew Before Taking Practice Tests

When I first started prepping for the NASM exam, I thought practice tests would be easy.  I mean, I’d been working out for years, understood fitness concepts, and figured the test would just confirm what I already knew.

I was wrong. 

My first score? Low, under 70%. The questions weren’t as simple as I expected; they were complex scenarios. That first practice test was brutal, but it was also the best thing that happened to my study journey. It revealed exactly where my knowledge was lacking: I knew exercises, but not the OPT Model. Professional conduct questions hit me hardest: I scored lowest there because I hadn’t considered scope of practice or when to refer clients. I had memorized facts without truly understanding them, like which exercises belong in Phase 1.

And so, I completely changed my approach. Instead of just passively reading the textbook, I began taking weekly practice tests and focusing on my weakest areas. Rather than spending time on what I already knew, I dedicated 80% of my study time to sections where I scored below 65%.

If you’re staring at a low first practice test score like I was, remember: that score doesn’t define you. It just highlights where to focus. Every trainer I know struggled at first; those who passed used their mistakes as a guide, not a reason to give up.

Take each practice test, learn from your errors, and trust the process. The NASM exam is tough, but with consistent effort and smart studying, it’s completely achievable. Now, let’s dive into practice questions and turn your weak spots into strengths.

Why This NASM Practice Test Is Different

Most NASM practice tests fail you in 3 ways:

Too easy

They test recall, not application (the real exam is scenario-based)

Shallow explanations

You memorize answers without understanding why

No strategy

They don’t teach you how to think like the exam wants you to

This practice test fixes all three.

Your Path to Success

Remember, becoming NASM certified isn’t just about passing a test, it’s about becoming the kind of trainer who changes lives. Every question you master, every concept you understand, brings you closer to making a real difference in your clients’ health and fitness.

The NASM exam is challenging, but it’s absolutely achievable with consistent effort and smart studying. Use these practice questions to identify your weak areas, leverage the additional resources provided, and trust in your preparation. Now go become the certified trainer you’re meant to be!

Hannah Daugherty

Hannah is a certified trainer through both the American Council on Exercise and National Academy of Sports Medicine. She also obtained her Corrective Exercise Specialist certification through NASM. With a Bachelor’s degree in Kinesiology and a Master’s degree in Exercise Science, Hannah enjoys devoting her time to staying on top of current fitness trends and putting in to practice the many different skills she has learned, including fact checking, proofreading, and writing scholarly-based health and wellness articles. Hannah recently received her Level 2 Master Health Coach certification from Precision Nutrition, and is planning on becoming a board-certified Health Coach. She enjoys reading, weight lifting, and spending time with her husband and son.

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